Two boxes are side by side on a floor with friction, from the left a Force acts on them. To be more concise about the picture it is this one on this website:
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/f2m2.html#c1
I dont understand how the acceleration is derived. Especially i dont get which vectors are weighed out against each other. And also from their pictures it is not clear where
I have already tried to "reverse engineer" the given expression for a (on that website):
Step-1: [itex]a = \frac{F- \mu*(m_{1}+m_{2})*g}{(m_{1}+m_{2})}[/itex]
Step-2: [itex]a*(m_{1}+m_{2}) = F- \mu*(m_{1}+m_{2})*g[/itex]
My question here is wether the left side stands for "[itex]F_{net}[/itex]" (or "[itex]F_{result}[/itex]") ? That is could i write instead of Step-2, this one:
Step-3: [itex]F_{net} = F- \mu*(m_{1}+m_{2})*g[/itex]
And the next question is could i replace F with [itex]F_{push}[/itex]?
Step-4: [itex]F_{net} = F_{push}- \mu*(m_{1}+m_{2})*g[/itex]
and the mu-Stuff with
Step-5: [itex]F_{net} = F_{push}- f_{m1}-f_{m2}[/itex]
If so, why didnt they write it on their website, because i think that it is more intuitive than just spitting out the formula for a? Or is my derivation totally wrong?
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/f2m2.html#c1
I dont understand how the acceleration is derived. Especially i dont get which vectors are weighed out against each other. And also from their pictures it is not clear where
I have already tried to "reverse engineer" the given expression for a (on that website):
Step-1: [itex]a = \frac{F- \mu*(m_{1}+m_{2})*g}{(m_{1}+m_{2})}[/itex]
Step-2: [itex]a*(m_{1}+m_{2}) = F- \mu*(m_{1}+m_{2})*g[/itex]
My question here is wether the left side stands for "[itex]F_{net}[/itex]" (or "[itex]F_{result}[/itex]") ? That is could i write instead of Step-2, this one:
Step-3: [itex]F_{net} = F- \mu*(m_{1}+m_{2})*g[/itex]
And the next question is could i replace F with [itex]F_{push}[/itex]?
Step-4: [itex]F_{net} = F_{push}- \mu*(m_{1}+m_{2})*g[/itex]
and the mu-Stuff with
Step-5: [itex]F_{net} = F_{push}- f_{m1}-f_{m2}[/itex]
If so, why didnt they write it on their website, because i think that it is more intuitive than just spitting out the formula for a? Or is my derivation totally wrong?