Quantcast
Channel: Classical Physics
Viewing all articles
Browse latest Browse all 57941

Question on Bmax in magnetics

$
0
0
I don't understand what the book said. See attached page,

1) The Red underlined section. I don't understand why B will be at it's max negative value at the beginning of the cycle assume it is sine wave start at V=0 at t=0.
2) What is the "subsequent half-cycle? Why is it has to be divided by 2?

3) Notice in the equation, the integration is only for half the cycle from 0 to π/ω? If this is because the result is zero if integrate a full cycle, why is it not having a multiply by 2 in it for the full cycle?

Thanks

Attached Images
File Type: jpg Bmax L.jpg (98.6 KB)

Viewing all articles
Browse latest Browse all 57941

Trending Articles