This question is just about a thought I was having.
If a 1 kg object which is at rest is made to accelerate with a force of 20 newtons and then three seconds later have an opposing force of 20 N applied to it with an impulse of (1)60/(T=0), would the object begin to accelerate in the opposite direction?
If a 1 kg object which is at rest is made to accelerate with a force of 20 newtons and then three seconds later have an opposing force of 20 N applied to it with an impulse of (1)60/(T=0), would the object begin to accelerate in the opposite direction?
