I'm sure this is an easy question to answer - per the attached image, can someone please explain why the friction force has not required/been affected by integration?
My calculus is very rusty but the only reason I can think of is that μ, m and g are all constants (for the purposes of the question) and so x^1 drops in as a result of integrating x^0 - is that correct?
My calculus is very rusty but the only reason I can think of is that μ, m and g are all constants (for the purposes of the question) and so x^1 drops in as a result of integrating x^0 - is that correct?