http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorenz_gauge_condition
I know it's used to simplify the 2 partial differential equations of the potentials, but why can we put such a restriction on the potentials? Doesn't that restriction restrict the possible electrical and magnetic fields that can be derived from the potentials?
Could I make any arbitrary restriction on the potentials? For example could I say that the laplacian of A is equal to 0?
I asked my teacher and looked in Jackson's book but they just justify it saying "the potentials are arbitrary".
I know it's used to simplify the 2 partial differential equations of the potentials, but why can we put such a restriction on the potentials? Doesn't that restriction restrict the possible electrical and magnetic fields that can be derived from the potentials?
Could I make any arbitrary restriction on the potentials? For example could I say that the laplacian of A is equal to 0?
I asked my teacher and looked in Jackson's book but they just justify it saying "the potentials are arbitrary".