Hello,
I'm trying to calculate the resonance-frequencies of my multilayer samples by solving the lagrangian. For this I need the magnetic equivalent of the kinetic energy of my samples. Is this equivalent the classical case?
[itex]\Rightarrow\sum_{i=1}^3\frac{1}{2}m\left(\frac{dx_ i}{dt}\right)^2[/itex]
But then replacing the [itex]x_i[/itex] with the unit magnetization in that direction ( [itex]m_{xi}[/itex] )?
Thanks in advance.
I'm trying to calculate the resonance-frequencies of my multilayer samples by solving the lagrangian. For this I need the magnetic equivalent of the kinetic energy of my samples. Is this equivalent the classical case?
[itex]\Rightarrow\sum_{i=1}^3\frac{1}{2}m\left(\frac{dx_ i}{dt}\right)^2[/itex]
But then replacing the [itex]x_i[/itex] with the unit magnetization in that direction ( [itex]m_{xi}[/itex] )?
Thanks in advance.