Dear all,
I'm wondering, how one could justify mathematically the equality
[itex]\int O(E(\vec{x}_1,...\vec{x}_N)) exp(-\beta E(\vec{x}_1,...,\vec{x}_N)) d\vec{x}_1...d\vec{x}_N[/itex] = [itex]\int g(E) O(E) exp(-\beta E) dE[/itex]
where O(E(x)) is an observable and g(E) the density of states.
Is there a mathematical justification for the equality?
best,
derivator
I'm wondering, how one could justify mathematically the equality
[itex]\int O(E(\vec{x}_1,...\vec{x}_N)) exp(-\beta E(\vec{x}_1,...,\vec{x}_N)) d\vec{x}_1...d\vec{x}_N[/itex] = [itex]\int g(E) O(E) exp(-\beta E) dE[/itex]
where O(E(x)) is an observable and g(E) the density of states.
Is there a mathematical justification for the equality?
best,
derivator