I have an incline A that is very steep reaching a vertical height of h and another one B which is less steep with the same vertical height. So using the work energy theorem: in A, KE+work done against friction=mgh so the work done against friction and initial KE is equal to the gain in gravitational potential energy. In B, KE+work done against friction=mgh also. So again the work done against friction and intial KE is equal to the increase in mgh.
So from this we can say that the work done against friction is equal to each other as in both cases the initial KE is the same as each other. (KE+work done=KE+work done). But in A, the distance is lesser than in B. Since work done=forceXdistance so the friction in A is greater than in B?
And since friction is the coefficient of friction multiplied by the upwards force, since the roughness is assumed to be the same for this example, as A is greater than B and the coefficient is the same so won't A have a greater normal upwards force? Thanks for the help :smile:
image:http://postimage.org/image/590thw81f/full/
So from this we can say that the work done against friction is equal to each other as in both cases the initial KE is the same as each other. (KE+work done=KE+work done). But in A, the distance is lesser than in B. Since work done=forceXdistance so the friction in A is greater than in B?
And since friction is the coefficient of friction multiplied by the upwards force, since the roughness is assumed to be the same for this example, as A is greater than B and the coefficient is the same so won't A have a greater normal upwards force? Thanks for the help :smile:
image:http://postimage.org/image/590thw81f/full/