Here's a derviation from HyperPhysics:
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He says:
[tex]dV=πy^{2}dz[/tex]
However, if we're finding the surface area of the sphere:
[tex]dA=2πRdz≠2πydz[/tex]
If we cannot use [tex]dA=2πydz[/tex], how come [tex]dV=πy^{2}dz[/tex] is still applicable?
He says:
[tex]dV=πy^{2}dz[/tex]
However, if we're finding the surface area of the sphere:
[tex]dA=2πRdz≠2πydz[/tex]
If we cannot use [tex]dA=2πydz[/tex], how come [tex]dV=πy^{2}dz[/tex] is still applicable?